If we disallow cases because the defendant is not the government, doesn't that invite someone to disallow cases because the defendant is the government?
(Which of course happens all the time, but still...)
No, the government is held to a higher standard because they control the police and military. There are countless issues where I'd say the government should be restricted in a way that private parties are not.
Besides, the government already has sovereign immunity to lawsuits unless it chooses to allow itself to be sued. So if anything your first sentence is backward.
