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Back of the envelope calculation

I would imagine dealers are 0.1-1% of the population (say .3%) and the FBI says roughly 13% of homicides are gang related which is probably a rough proxy for the number of drug dealer related homicides.

This would put dealers as having a homicide rate approximately 40x the base rate. This seems right to me.



I wonder if 'gang related' is a conflation with 'poor'.

To be fair, have to measure folks in the same socioeconomic class and geography but not in gangs and compare?


I think homicide base rate for poverty is closer to 2x.




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