Try "Carthage Must Be Destroyed: The Rise and Fall of an Ancient Civilization" by Richard Miles. It is not in dispute that Carthage had a long presence in Spain. If you are arguing that this had no impact on local culture, you'd need to provide some compelling evidence.

Thanks for the recommendation but just to clarify the claim I am querying is that the reason Iberia was “civilised” was due to the Carthaginian presence.

> Large parts of Rome's empire were civilized, not by Rome, but by Carthage and the Phoenicians.

That’s more than a claim that that the Carthaginians held overlordship of southern and eastern Iberia.